Watson’s lemma and Laplace’s method
1 Watson’s lemma
Our proof of Watson’s lemma follows Miller.11 1 Peter D. Miller, Applied Asymptotic Analysis, p. 53, Proposition 2.1.
Theorem 1 (Watson’s lemma).
Suppose that , that belongs to , that , and that is on some neighborhood of . Then defined by
satisfies
Proof.
Take to be on some interval with left endpoint and right endpoint , . For a nonnegative integer and , define
which satisfies, doing the change of variable ,
Using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
For any nonnegative integer we have as , hence, dealing with merely as a constant depending on ,
(1) |
as .
Write
One the one hand,
which shows that for any nonnegative integer ,
as .
One the other hand, for each nonnegative integer , Taylor’s theorem tells us that the function defined by
satisfies
where the supremum is over those strictly between and . Then for ,
Using the definition of ,
and using the inequality for ,
Using this and (1),
Putting together what we have shown, for any nonnegative integer , as ,
which proves the claim. ∎
2 Laplace’s method for an interval
Theorem 2.
Suppose that , that , and that there is a unique at which is equal to its supremum over . Suppose also that and that . Then
as .
Proof.
We remark first that because is equal to its supremum over at this point, which is not a boundary point. The claim says that a ratio has limit as . We shall prove that the liminf and the limsup of this ratio are both 1, which will prove the claim. Let . Because is continuous, there is some such that implies ; we take small enough that . Writing
Taylor’s theorem tells us that for each there is some strictly between and such that
Thus for we have , so
Using this inequality, which applies for any , and because the integrand in the following integral is positive,
Changing variables, keeping in mind that ,
Thus
(2) |
is lower bounded by
so we get that the liminf of (2) as is lower bounded by
But this is true for all and (2) and its liminf do not depend on , so the liminf of (2) as is lower bounded by . In other words,
Let with ; this is possible because . Because is continuous there is some such that implies that ; we take . Taylor’s theorem tells us that for any there is some strictly between and such that
Therefore, as implies that ,
(3) |
Furthermore, is continuous, so it makes sense to define
Because is not in this union of intervals, by hypothesis we know that , and we define . This means that for all , . Then
For the integral over ,
Changing variables, and keeping in mind that ,
Therefore
which we rearrange as
As the first term on the right-hand side tends to , because . Therefore,
This is true for all , so it holds that
completing the proof. ∎